Let's talk about Numbers Chapter 5 . . .
. . . beginning at verse 11, concerning a jealous husband:
11 The Lord spoke to Moses, saying, 12 “Speak to the Israelites and say to them:We know right away that the Lord (supposedly) is telling Moses exactly what to say to His followers, the "children of Israel". We know that the following instructions come directly from God (if he exists).
12 cont. If any man’s wife goes astray and is unfaithful to him, 13 if a man has had intercourse with her but it is hidden from her husband, so that she is undetected though she has defiled herself, and there is no witness against her since she was not caught in the act;
Based on this verse, it seems that the instructions that will follow are specifically for when a wife commits adultery - BUT - there is no witness to this act of adultery. It seems at the onset that these instructions are assuming that the wife has indeed committed adultery but hasn't been caught in the act. It seems as though it is assuming that the husband is justified in his jealousy. Perhaps the following verses will clear it up.
14 if a spirit of jealousy comes on him and he is jealous of his wife who has defiled herself, or if a spirit of jealousy comes on him and he is jealous of his wife, though she has not defiled herself,
So a husband is "jealous" of his wife and she either has or has not committed adultery. We don't know why he suspects her other than a "spirit of jealousy" has come upon him. I don't know if by "spirit" it just means a feeling of suspicion or if it means an actual "spirit" has entered him causing him to experience this jealousy. At any rate, it seems that the best course of action should NEVER be to trust a "spirit" because it may be telling you a truth or a lie. Anyway, what are ya gonna do?
15 then the man shall bring his wife to the priest. And he shall bring the offering required for her, one-tenth of an ephah of barley flour. He shall pour no oil on it and put no frankincense on it, for it is a grain offering of jealousy, a grain offering of remembrance, bringing iniquity to remembrance.
29 “This is the law in cases of jealousy, when a wife, while under her husband’s authority, goes astray and defiles herself, 30 or when a spirit of jealousy comes on a man and he is jealous of his wife, then he shall set the woman before the Lord, and the priest shall apply this entire law to her. 31 The man shall be free from iniquity, but the woman shall bear her iniquity.”
Why does God always require some sort of payment, some sort of "donation" or "offering"? And why in the world does God want his priest to work this process? Does he not know how corrupt his priests (of every denomination) will become over the next thousands of years?
16 “Then the priest shall bring her near and set her before the Lord; 17 the priest shall take holy water in an earthen vessel and take some of the dust that is on the floor of the tabernacle and put it into the water. 18 The priest shall set the woman before the Lord, dishevel the woman’s hair, and place in her hands the grain offering of remembrance, which is the grain offering of jealousy. In his own hand the priest shall have the water of bitterness that brings the curse. 19 Then the priest shall make her take an oath, saying, ‘If no man has lain with you, if you have not turned aside to uncleanness while under your husband’s authority, be immune to this water of bitterness that brings the curse. 20 But if you have gone astray while under your husband’s authority, if you have defiled yourself and some man other than your husband has had intercourse with you,’
I am not sure why all these ingredients are necessary in determining if the woman is or is not guilty of adultery? Couldn't the "all knowing" God of Israel have simply told the priest that she was guilty or innocent, and then had them get to stoning her or just let her go home? Surely the God of Israel would know if she had sinned . . . ?
21 —let the priest make the woman take the oath of the curse and say to the woman—‘the Lord make you an execration and an oath among your people, when the Lord makes your uterus drop, your womb discharge; 22 now may this water that brings the curse enter your bowels and make your womb discharge, your uterus drop! And the woman shall say, ‘Amen. Amen.’
Based on verses 21 and 22, the priest is cursing the woman as if it has already been determined that she is guilty. That doesn't sound like justice to me.
23 “Then the priest shall put these curses in writing and wash them off into the water of bitterness. 24 He shall make the woman drink the water of bitterness that brings the curse, and the water that brings the curse shall enter her and cause bitter pain.
23 “Then the priest shall put these curses in writing and wash them off into the water of bitterness. 24 He shall make the woman drink the water of bitterness that brings the curse, and the water that brings the curse shall enter her and cause bitter pain.
Is she going to experience this pain after drinking the potion regardless of her guilt or innocence? This is not clear.
25 The priest shall take the grain offering of jealousy out of the woman’s hand and shall elevate the grain offering before the Lord and bring it to the altar, 26 and the priest shall take a handful of the grain offering as its memorial portion and turn it into smoke on the altar and afterward shall make the woman drink the water.
Why does this sound like some voodoo mysticism? If this was in some ancient (or modern) book with a witch doctor on the cover, Christians would proclaim it is a product of Satan, but because it is found in the bible, they will say that it (if they have even read this far) is a Holy proclamation from God.
27 When he has made her drink the water, then, if she has defiled herself and has been unfaithful to her husband, the water that brings the curse shall enter into her and cause bitter pain, and her womb shall discharge, her uterus drop, and the woman shall become an execration among her people.
At this point we need to look very carefully at what is being said so far - ". . . her womb shall discharge . . ."? - discharge what - its contents? What are often the contents of a womb at some point after sexual intercourse - a fetus?
This sounds an awful lot like a potion and a curse that will cause the miscarriage of an unwanted pregnancy - in other words - a forced abortion and a forced sterilization (and what ever else might result from drinking this concoction).
28 But if the woman has not defiled herself and is clean, then she shall be immune and be able to conceive children.
Magic. That's all this is - magic. Mix some floor dust in some "Holy water", muss up her hair, add some grains, speak some incantation, and somehow, her guilt or innocence will be revealed. Magic.
29 “This is the law in cases of jealousy, when a wife, while under her husband’s authority, goes astray and defiles herself, 30 or when a spirit of jealousy comes on a man and he is jealous of his wife, then he shall set the woman before the Lord, and the priest shall apply this entire law to her. 31 The man shall be free from iniquity, but the woman shall bear her iniquity.”
There you have it - if the man just imagined this out of paranoia, or was just pissed at his wife and made this all up, he can put her through this hell, and once it is "proven" that she is innocent, she has no recourse. She just has to put up with this ass that her father forced her to marry - why - because she is considered property, thanks to the God of Israel.
bob
r.u.reasonable@gmail.com
Comments
Post a Comment